Title page.


Page 373.


Page 374.


Source: “Epistolae Ho-Elianae:Familiar letters” by James Howell, 10th edition, 1737.

As you readers can see for yourself, James Howell was an eyewitness to the state of things in 1630, he correctly notes that Sclavonic(Slavic) is spoken in all of Macedon(Macedonia) and that the Greek is an almost dead language of his time, only spoken in a few places and very degenerate at that, it is as if the "nation of the Greeks" does not exist, they are nowhere to be found. They are more Barbarian then the Barbarians themselves.

So why do our modern Greeks claim that we Macedonians never existed and that Macedonia has a 4000 year old "Greek" history, you must be an imbecile to even consider such a Propagandistic view of history.

History has spoken.

some Greeks must have seen this, do not be shy.......

Your enjoying this slaughter, arent you?? Me too..hehe

Where do you get the SOUTH from?
In ALL of MACEDON AND EPIRUS........

Why are you a crybaby? The Macedonians spoke Sclavonic in 1630 in all of Macedon.......
The Romeoi were not speaking GREEK properly it sounded more BARBARIC than what the BARBARIANS spoke themselves.........

Yes I agree. I also agree with the author that Greek was abolished from Egypt, Arabia, Turkey...and so on.

That means that at earlier times Greek was spoken also in those countries. So????

Greek was an offical language in the Byzantine Empire from cc. 600-700 AD on, before it was the Latin language, so it is not a miracle.

That does not mean that those peoples who spoke those official languages were Greeks or Latins ethnically.

Yannis is right.

and not only that, you greeks think by abolishing some language, the original population of the region is killed off or replaced with new one.

this does not stand the reality. Language is a first of all Cultural marker.

we have Protugese and Spanish speaking Maya, Inka etc today. We have only Russian speaking Eskimos.

How many Africans speak ony French, English?

Abolishing the Official language of the Byzantine Empire is more than natural. It was language spoken for administrative purposess between the vast diverse ethnicities under the Empire.

1)
And are those Mayans and Inkas Spanish or Portugese? Are those Escimos Russian? Are those Africans French and Englishmen???

Macedonians were conquered by Serbs, Slavic Bulgarians etc. The influence is there, so what?

Macedonia as well as Greece were overrun so many times by other people, such as Romans, Turks, Avars, Celts, Germans etc.

Do you think they did not have made their traces there?

Prove that any Slavic Tribes arived! Show me where Byzantines say that this "Slavic" tribes migrated!

Also please tell me what happened to this alledged Slavic Tribes in Greece! According to the theory that you parot here, they also settled in Greece, and Falmayer and Co. disputes your Greekness upon the same theory you parot here.


As for the "Greek" Art of the Macedonians, look up the Thracian Art, do you see the Gap there? Do you consider Thracians as Greeks? There was enough Greek influence in South Itally. Almost the whole Roman Culture is similar to the Greek, are they Greeks?

2)Can you prove me that Thracian did not survive?
Do you know their language? From the surviving evidence of Thracian, there are enough words that are still used in Bulgaria where Thracian was dominant!!!!!

Thracian words in Bulgarian

Other Bulgarian Scientists on Thracian

Phrygian certainly has it inpackt on Turkish.

If your Government would not revive the Greek tongue, it would have been in the State as every Ancient Language is today.
Just because you returned the Katarevousa, you learned to sound more like the Greeks in Ancient times.

so don't get kocky with your Greekness

You see, the Problem of St. Demetrius for you is that it is description of war i.e. siege.

In the text there is no mentioning that they settled there!

as for the names, I copy it for you fromthe other tread:

and for the Names of the Placenames, this ain't telling us anything. The Type of Strabo and Co. had this bad habit of naming everything a as it suits them. They gave Names to People, Gods and Placenames as it suited them, just to be easier on them.

Good Example of this are the Egyptian Gods, Osiris, Horus, Isis, all Greek sounding, or you take the Persians such as Daraius, Xerxes, they did not give a damn about even trying to speak out or write their original names.



I would really like to chat with you dude, but you are waste of time. you are paroting things over and over again, and even when you recieve answear and you are not able to respond, you chose to overlook it and return to paroting.

good luck you mental

I don't mean anything, I say we have no way of possibly knowing what the names were prior that, except from Greek sources, which are most likely not accurate!

as for Xerxes, it does not makes your kin and others to claim the following:



and there are others who see it as greek as well:



Don't make me go through all the crap again.

so you may have learnt something new today

if you are capable of

"except from Greek sources, which are most likely not accurate"

Let me get this straight ... you are implying that Greeks were engaging in propaganda from the ancient times ?

You can't possible be that stupid, I mean I am sure scientifically there is a limit.

Learn the value of cross referencing and independent sources. You can't disregard evidence because you don't like it. Your own kids are going to wise up and hate you for misleading them

G

I did not ever used the word Propaganda, did I?

What I said is, that Greeks of Ancient time were describing things as they see the things fit them, rather than describing things as they are.


If you thnk I am stupid it is your problem, but before call me names prove me wrong.

This Greeks were giving things, people etc. Greek sounding names, which makes then inaccurate reporters!

Accurate reporter would try to report the real name of the thing, god, people etc. rather than re-naming it!

wouldn't you agree?

By the way, I did not disregard anything, but rather point out that we can't really be sure of it's accuracy, and there is big difference in what you accuse me of and what I am doing.

Cross referencing is what I did above too. I referenced Greek Sources and Persian sources and showed that they refer to same Persons but in different way, thus leading to the question, if Greeks did really bother to bring us the accurate situation of the time.

try harder next time!

Did you know that the Persian empire was never called Persian by the Iranians???It was called/name was IRANIAN empire - but this is another case of graeco interpretae that they dont teach you in school. And emperor Xerxes name wasnt really Xerxes....