Not only the Macedonians.

Take a closer look "its the vulgar speech of the .... Epirots"

Also....Alexander is shown to give a charter "to YOU the noble stock of SCLAVONIANS and to your noble language because you have been to US a help..."

There is a distinction WE...to YOU Sclavonians!

The same author if i m not wrong writes that Greek was abolished by Slavic in Macedonia! So i guess Greek was spoken before all over Macedonia ...

There isnt any single scholar on the planet that believes that Macedonians (all of them-not the king) spoke smth else than common Greek in 600AD.

The whole debate is about up to 300-200 BC.

same geographical region.
same language.

I never said that Greeks are direct descendants of ancients,and i dont believe in dna purity.

But u could explain me what do u have o do with ancient Macedonians ...

u dont live in the same Geographical region.
u dont speak the same language.

Your tries to prove that Macedonia was not what it was in medieval times -Just A GEOGRAPHICAL term-fail one after the other.
Like Thrace was no more an ethnic term..like Phrygia...like Cappadocia...like Paphlagonia...

All the skeletons of Byzantine generals u tried to present as discoveries of Macedonians have spoken through the sources.

Nationalities and Ethnicities are not eternal truths TM.
Neither Macedonian nor Greek are.

Also..Belissarius lived in the 6th cent. A common "Romaic"/Roman identity as an ETHNIC identity ,was formed between 5th-8th cent.
That's because a)the Empire lost of all its non-greek speaking lands (Egypt,Syria,Italy,North Balcans),
b)Christianity finally prevailed c)all the ancient languages of Anatolia and the Balcans extincted.
The remaining pats were either inhabited by descendants of Ancient Greeks-Greece West Asia minor and all the coast,or Hellinized Anatolians-Inner Anatolia.
In the sources are all the "Romeoi" ,"the genus of the Romans"-They are not separated as different nations but only geographically-I m asking u again where are the Lydians or the Phrygians ???
If they were really different nations speaking the same language -as u say- why on Earth they werent revolting to gain independence???
All the revolts of "Themata" are in order to support someone to become an Emperor-not to cut off the state!
And we speak about 1000 years!!Wouldnt the Carians...the Lycians...the Phrygians revolt these 1000 years????

There were on the other hand some revolts for independence -like the one of Peter Deljan-in the sources he s called Bulgarian (you can call him Macedonian ,or as you wish-thats personal).But these was supported by the local Slavic (non Greek)-speaking population -a non-romaic(aka Byzantine Greek (i dislike this term)) population.
The same goes for the revolts for independence of Bulgarian/Vlachs brothers Asan,the Serbian revolts ...etc.